A+ Essentials 601 Test 2
1. Which of the following statements about a personal computer is not accurate?
a. Most computers today are modular.
b. Each component in a computer has a specific function.
c. The primary circuit board in a personal computer is known as a motherboard.
d. There is only one device on the market for each specific function within a personal computer.

2. Which of the following integrated motherboard components is not generally found on a non-integrated motherboard?
a. NIC
b. CMOS
c. HDD header
d. PCI slot

3. Which motherboard form factor dissipates heat best?
a. ATX
b. BTX
c. LPX
d. NLX

4. Which of the following best describes a chipset?
a. The collection of all chips and circuits on the motherboard.
b. The CPU and RAM.
c. The collection of all chips and circuits in a computer that are not on the motherboard.
d. A collection of chips or circuits that performs functions for the CPU.

5. Which of the following components is responsible for facilitating communications between the CPU and memory?
a. BIOS
b. Memory controller
c. Northbridge
d. Interrupt controller

6. Which of the following depends on the Northbridge for communication with the rest of the computer?
a. Southbridge
b. PCI
c. IEEE 1284
d. USB

7. Which of the following existed in the original personal computers?
a. ISA
b. PCI
c. AGP
d. DDR

8. Which of the following statements about PCIe is not true?
a. A PCIe slot will not accommodate a PCI card.
b. PCIe is capable of being faster than AGP.
c. PCIe uses one or more lanes to communicate along the bus.
d. Each PCIe slot is the same length.

9. Which of the following is not a speed level for PCIe?
a.1X
b.2X
c.3X
d.4X

10. Which of the following statements about memory is true?
a. today's motherboards take memory in the form of individual chips.
b. today's processors have memory on board, obviating the need for memory on the motherboard.
c. Memory for today's computers is most often installed on a riser card.
d. A variety of module types are in use today.

11. Which two of the following pin counts can be found on SoDIMMs?
a. 30
b. 72
c. 144
d. 168

12. All of the following are accurate statements about the CPU except:
a. For each generation of personal computer CPUs, there is only a single type of CPU.
b. The CPU performs the majority of all computer functions.
c. Modern CPUs generally require a fan, a heat sink, or both.
d. Pentium is the trade name for the fifth major Intel CPU family.

13. Which of the following CPU/socket pairings is Incorrect?
a. Athlon: Socket A
b. Celeron: Socket C
c. Xeon: Socket 603
d. Athlon 64: Socket 754

14. All of the following statements about the 80-wire UDMA cable are true except:
a. Half the wires serve as ground wires.
b. The cables are capable of higher transfer rates that 40-wire cables.
c. The connectors attached to the cable have 80 contacts.
d. There is less crosstalk among the 40 signal wires than with 40-wire cables.

15. Which of the following is the best description of firmware?
a. A 3.5" microfloppy, because its casing is more solid than that of a 5.25" minifloppy
b. Software that cannot be changed
c. Flexible hardware
d. Software embedded in hardware, such as a ROM chip

16. All of the following statements about the CMOS are true except:
a. The CMOS chip is so named because it is the only chip manufactured by that process.
b. The CMOS requires a battery to keep its contents when the computer is turned off.
c. The CMOS holds alterations to the default BIOS settings.
d. Resetting the BIOS to factory defaults erases the CMOS

17. What is the term for the technology that provides circuitry for more than one processor in a single CPU package?
a. HTT
b. Multicore
c. SMT
d. Multiplicity

18. Which of the following statements about overclocking is false?
a. Overclocking is the practice of using a clock signal that exceeds the rating for the CPU.
b. Overclocking your CPU is always safe.
c. You may need enhanced cooling methods when overclocking.
d. Other components may be damaged by an overclocked CPU.

19. All of the following are true regarding ECC, except:
a. FCC can detect up to two bit errors in the same memory access.
b. FCC can correct single bit errors in a single memory access.
c. ECC has been replaced by parity checking.
d. The ECC algorithm is performed on each memory access.

20. Which of the following statements about standard SDRAM is not true?
a. SDRAM is tied to the FSB and the processor for clocking.
b. SDRAM is rated as PCx, where x is the clock rate of the system clock in MHz.
c. You can find SDRAM's throughput in bytes by multiplying 8 bytes times the rated frequency.
d. SDRAM derives its clocking from the inbound signal.

21. All of the following are terms related to Rambus memory except:
a. RDRAM
b. RDIMM
c. RIMM
d. Dual-channel

22. Which of the following Rambus memory pairings is not accurate?
a. 16-bit: 168 pins
b. 16-bit: two keying notches
c. 32-bit: 232 pins
d. 32-bit: one keying notch

23. Which of the following is not one of the three primary components of a hard-drive system?
a. Modulator/Demodulator
b. Controller
c. Hard disk
d. Host adapter

24. In looking for a replacement CD-RW drive for your computer, you want to make sure the CD-RW rewrite speed is as fast as the CD-RW write speed. You find a unit labeled 52X-32X-52X. How does this fulfill your requirement?
a. Perfectly. The write and rewrite speeds are both 52X.
b. Perfectly. The 32X refers to the speed of any type of burning.
c. Not at all. The rewrite speed is only 32X, whereas the write speed is 52X.
d. Incredibly. This unit writes at 32X and rewrites at 52X.

25. What is SDIO?
a. A digital serial interface to replace USB.
b. A specification that is capable of bringing high-speed/low-power components to handheld mobile devices.
c. The underlying technology behind CD-ROM.
d. A competitor for S/PDIF.

26. What are HD DVD and Blu-ray Disc?
a. The two bestselling brand names of DVDROM drives from competing manufacturers.
b. Competing trade names for double-layered DVD offerings.
c. Next-generation DVD formats, capable of higher data capacities and true HDTV.
d. Computer DVD technologies that store video information only.

27. With regard to power supplies, you must be careful of all of the following except:
a. How the voltage selection switch is set.
b. How much of a load the system and its components place on the power supply.
c. The current that can be discharged inside the power supply's case.
d. Which way the fan rotates.

28. All of the following statements about ATX, ATX12V, and EPS12V connectors are true except:
a. Each one has a single multipin main connector that takes the place of P8/P9 in AT systems.
b. The EPS12V and ATX12V main connectors are interchangeable.
c. The ATX12V and EPS12V systems use a supplementary connector that supplies additional + 12VDC leads.
d. The ATX12V specification calls for a connector similar to P8 and P9 that supplies additional +3.3VDC and +5VDC leads.

29. Which video standard has widescreen capability and a maximum resolution of 1920 X 1200, and is capable of 32-bit color?
a. SVGA
b. XGA
c. WXGA
d. WUXGA

30. What is dot pitch when discussing a CRT monitor?
a. The shortest distance between two dot phosphors of the same color
b. The angle at which the dot phosphors are struck by the electron beam, making curved monitors more brilliant at the edges than their flat-monitor counterparts
c. Shooting arcs of light as if the pixel were thrown from one point on the monitor to another, requiring degaussing to mitigate the magnetic disturbance
d. The perceptible movement of the screen image due to an interlaced refresh rate

31. What is the most accurate designation for a 9-pin male D-subminiature port that has one row of five pins and one row of four?
a. DA9M
b. DB9M
c. DC9M
d. DE9M

32. What is another way to refer to IEEE 1394?
a. USB 2.0
b. ECP
c. FireWire
d. Ethernet

33. All of the following statements about enhanced parallel ports are accurate except:
a. They are specified by IEEE 1284.
b. Two forms exist: ECP and EPP.
c. They are on track to become the most common connectors for printer interfaces.
d. They are faster than standard parallel ports.

34. Which of the following could apply to the terms front intake, rear exhaust, CPU, chipset, and video-card chipset?
a. Module
b. Chip
c. Fan
d. Controller

35. All of the following statements regarding ATA are true except:
a. lJltraDMA/133 is SATA.
b. UItraDMA/100 supports maximum transfer rates of 100MBps.
c. ATA-2 and higher are referred to as EJDE.
d. ATAPI was introduced with ATA-3 to support devices other than hard drives.

36. How can you best identify pin I on a drive's flat ribbon cable?
a. The number 1 is printed every inch on the side of the cable where pin 1 is located.
b. There is a colored stripe along the side of the cable where pin 1 is located.
c. An LED beside the connector lights when it detects pin 1 in the proper orientation.
d. The keying in the connector always orients the cable properly.

37. Which of the following statements about SCSI termination is true?
a. The SCSI adapter cannot be terminated.
b. If you are in doubt about which devices to terminate, terminate them all.
c. Only one device on the bus needs to be terminated.
d. Termination does not follow address but rather physical position on the bus.

38. Which statement about RAID is true?
a. RAID 0 does not provide fault tolerance.
b. RAID 1 does not provide fault tolerance.
c. RAID 5 does not provide fault tolerance.
d. Fault tolerance is not a part of RAID. RAID is only designed to allow a single drive letter to span multiple drives.

39. Which of the following screwdrivers is most indispensable while working with most computers?
a. Torx
b. Philips
c. Flat-blade
d. Hex driver

40. Which of the following specific meters is not commonly included in a multimeter?
a. Ammeter
b. Wattmeter
c. Voltmeter
d. Ohmmeter

41. All of the following are benefits of a bootable floppy except:
a. When the BIOS is inoperable, you can still boot to a floppy.
b. When the hard drive is inoperable, you can still boot to a floppy.
c. Corrupt operating systems and device-driver conflicts can be avoided by booting to a floppy.
d. If you can boot to a floppy, you can rule out motherboard and memory issues.

42. In what way is the POST routine helpful in isolating problems?
a. When you get to the end of the POST process, you can scroll back to check for errors reported by the components tested during POST.
b. POST creates a log that can be reviewed for details that may isolate the problem.
c. If a component tested by POST fails, POST usually halts at that point, indicating that the problem lies with that component.
d. POST results are transmitted to the BIOS manufacturer over the Internet. For a fee, you can get a report of the results, possibly indicating problem areas.

43. What is the most common reason for a computer to repeatedly work for a short time and then lock up?
a. Spilled liquids.
b. The motherboard resting on a metal standoff, shorting circuits underneath.
c. Overheating.
d. A failing power supply.

44. All of the following BIOS settings are likely to get your IDE CD-ROM drive detected during boot-up except:
a. None
b. Auto
c. ATAPI
d. CD-ROM

45. When removing a card from a computer, what should you do if you do not intend to replace the card with another?
a. Put a blank bracket in the slot.
b. Leave the slot open to improve airflow.
c. Leave the card in place but not seated.
d. Leave the card in place, and disable it in the BIOS.

46. Which of the following is an internal component that you can purchase for a laptop without proprietary barriers?
a. Motherboard
b. Modem
c. Hard drive
d. Keyboard

47. Which of the following is a key addition to some laptop processors and chipsets when compared to processors and chipsets used in desktop computers?
a. Internal cache
b. An extra pipeline
c. Higher voltage for increased performance
d. Built-in wireless NIC

48. What is the term for the fixed resolution of an LCD display?
a. Standard resolution
b. Set resolution
c. Native resolution
d. Local resolution

49. Which of the following has never been a commonly built-in pointing device for a laptop?
a. Mouse
b. Touchpoint
c. Touchpad
d. Touch screen

50. Which of the following options lists the CardBus component hierarchy in the correct order from highest to lowest level?
a. Application; Card Services; Socket Services; CardBus slot
b. Card Services; Application; Socket Services; CardBus slot
c. Socket Services; CardBus slot; Card Services; Application
d. Application; Socket Services; Card Services; CardBus slot

51. What is a docking station?
a. A Wi-Fi hot spot, where laptop users gain Internet access
b. A bay in a laptop into which an external drive chassis can be placed
c. A device on which you can mount a laptop and to which external devices can be
semi-permanently attached
d. A secure storage enclosure for a laptop

52. All of the following components must support ACPI for it to work except:
a. The RAM
b. The CPU
c. The motherboard
d. The operating system

53.Which of the following is the best practice for removing external components from a laptop?
a. Stop the device first with the icon in the System Tray.
b. It's external. Just remove it.
c. Shut the device down in the BIOS before removing it.
d. Uninstall the device in Device Manager before removing it.

54. Which of the following input devices is it sometimes possible to disable in Control Panel, making troubleshooting more difficult?
a. Scanner
b. Keyboard
c. Pointing device
d. Bar-code reader

55. All of the following are tasks that must be performed by an operating system except:
a. Document formatting
b. Disk and file management
c. Device access
d. Memory management

56. All of the following are required to support Plug and Play except:
a. Plug and Play compatible RAM.
b. A Plug and Play compatible operating system.
c. A Plug and Play compatible BIOS.
d. Plug and Play compatible components.

57. Which of the following Windows operating system pairings have the most similar GUIs?
a. 2000; XP
b. 95; 2000
c. 95; 98
d. 98; 2000

58. All of the following can generally be found on the Windows Taskbar except:
a. Start button
b. Control Panel
c. System Tray
d. Buttons for active windows

59. If the My Computer icon does not display on the Desktop in Windows XP, how can you add it?
a. You must have the original distribution disk to install it.
b. Add it through the Add/Remove Windows Components utility in Add or Remove Programs.
c. You must download it from Microsoft's website.
d. Add it from the Desktop Items dialog under Display Properties.

60. In attempting to display your computer's IP configuration, you enter ipconfig in the Open field of the Run dialog and click OK. However, the information flashes and disappears before you are able to read it. What can you do to cause the display to hold until you close it?
a. As soon as the window pops up, press the Pause button on your keyboard.
b. Open a Command Prompt first, and then execute the ipconfig command from the command line.
c. Use the -p switch after the ipconfig command to pause the display until you press a key.
d. Select the Wait for Input check box in the Run dialog before clicking the OK button.

61. Which one of the following is not considered a standard Desktop icon?
a. Recycle Bin
b. My Computer
c. Control Panel
d. Network Neighborhood/My Network Places

62. All of the following methods permanently delete an object without involving the Recycle Bin except:
a. Hold down the Shift key while right-clicking the object and dragging it to the Recycle Bin.
b. Hold down the Shift key while dragging the object to the Recycle Bin.
c. Click the object, and then press Shift-Delete.
d. Right-click the object, and then click Delete in the shortcut menu while holding the Shift key.

63. Which of the following statements is not true?
a. By clicking on and dragging any of the four corners of a maximized window, you are able to resize it.
b. Restoring a maximized window usually makes it smaller.
c. A minimized window's only proof of its existence is a button on the Taskbar.
d. Maximizing, minimizing, and restoring a window can be accomplished from the window's Control box.

64. How can you achieve the same result as double-clicking the Display icon in Control Panel without doing so?
a. In any Explorer window, click Folder Options in the Tools menu.
b. Use the function-key sequence prescribed for this purpose by your system's manufacturer.
c. Right-click a blank area of the Desktop, and then click Properties.
d. Right-click My Computer, and then click Display.

65. What is the term that refers to Microsoft checking and certifying drivers as not being hazardous to the operating environment?
a. 3PC (third-party certification)
b. Driver registration
c. Driver certification
d. Driver signing

66. All of the following statements about System Restore are true except:
a. Windows sets restore points when certain events occur.
b. Restore points can be used to roll back the Windows configuration to a point before there were issues.
c. Windows automatically attempts to use the most recent restore point to recover from a catastrophic failure.
d. You can manually set a restore point.

67. At a command prompt, you attempt to enter the command cd c:\program files. The response to your attempt is Too many parameters- files. Which two of the following will allow you to accomplish your intended task?
a. Close the 16-bit Command Prompt you opened with command, open a 32-bit Command Prompt with cmd, and then try the same command.
b. Leave files off your command.
c. Use the command cd c:\progra~1.
d. Omit the space between program and files.

68. Which Registry hive contains information about the associations of file extensions with applications?
a. HKEY_CURRENT_USER
b. HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT
c. HKEY LOCAL MACHINE
d. HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG

69. What is the term used to describe the data structure that stores the contents of virtual RAM?
a. Paging file
b. Registry
c. DIMM
d. Sysvol

70. Which of the following describes the BOOT.INI system file?
a. Starts the loading of the operating system
b. A text file that points to the partitions where one or more operating systems are installed
c. The core of the operating system that must remain loaded at all times, never being paged to disk
d. Parses the system for current configuration information as the operating system starts, and creates the dynamic portion of the Registry

71. Which of the following is a utility that was offered in Windows 9x and higher but not in Windows 2000, which can be copied from Windows XP for use in Windows 2000 and is used to view and change a broad range of settings?
a. IFCONFIG
b. IPCONFIG
c. MSCONFIG
d. MSDIAG

72. Which operating system supports FATI6 and FAT32, but not NTFS?
a. Windows 98
b. Windows NT 4
c. Windows 2000
d. Windows XP

73. What is the name of the Windows utility that allows you to partition and format a hard disk?
a.FDISK
b.FORMAT
c.Disk Management
d.Device Manager

74. All of the following are advanced attributes for objects that Windows 9x did not offer except:
a. Indexing
b. Encryption
c. Hidden
d. Compression

75. If you find it necessary to install more than one Microsoft operating system on the same computer, how should you go about installing them?
a. Install the oldest operating system first, and then work your way to the newest in
chronological order.
b. Installation order does not matter.
c. You cannot install more than one operating system on the same computer.
d. Install them all on the same partition.

76. In attempting to upgrade your Windows 2000 Professional operating system to Windows XP Professional, using a bootable CD, you find that every time you reboot with the CD in the drive, you keep coming to the Windows 2000 splash screen. Which of the following is not a possible reason for this result?
a. You must press any key at a certain time during the boot process to boot to the CDROM, and you failed to do so.
b. You have a copy of XP that is not able to upgrade Windows 2000.
c. Your system's BIOS is set not to boot to the CD-ROM drive.
d. You have a malfunction in the CD-ROM drive or a corruption of the XP disc.

77. All of the following are post-installation tasks that you may need to consider except:
a. Update drivers.
b. Run a final format on the installation drive.
c. Install applications, and restore user data.
d. Verify installation.

78. All of the following statements about virtual memory are true except:
a. Delete a swap file by setting the minimum and maximum sizes to zero.
b. In Windows 2000, increasing the size of the page file does not require you to reboot, but reducing it does.
c. Increasing the size of the swap file never reduces system performance.
d. Increasing virtual memory is rarely as good for performance as increasing RAM.

79. What is the name of the utility that allows you to display system, application, and security logs?
a. System Properties
b. Task Manager
c. Event Viewer
d. Computer Management

80. What is the name for the limited-functionality command-line utility that enables you to enter commands to repair certain problems with the operating system?
a. Command Prompt
b. CHKDSK
c. Scandisk
d. Recovery Console

81. Which one of the following is not a common form of printer?
a. Laser
b. Bubble-jet
c. Scanning
d. Impact

82. Which EP print process follows the charging step?
a. Writing
b. Cleaning
c. Developing
d. Fusing

83. You find that your printer squirts tiny droplets of ink onto the page in a pattern that forms characters and images. What type of printer is it?
a. Laser
b. Bubble-jet
c. Dot-matrix
d. Thermal

84. What are PCL and PostScript?
a. Page-description languages
b. Communications interfaces
c. Software drivers
d. Parallel-connector types

85. What is CCD?
a. A device that determines the resolution that a scanner can deliver to a computer by turning light into electrical impulses.
b. The type of CD that a scanner with direct-CD output uses.
c. The standards specification that governs the majority of all scanners in production today.
d. A digital carbon copy, referring to attachments to c-mails provided by network-attached scanners.

86. Which of the following dot-matrix symptoms is a result of the printer ribbon-advance gear slipping?
a. A blank line running through each line of print in the same position
b. A dark line running through each line of print in the same position
c. Lines of print with varying levels of darkness
d. Printing unintelligible garbage

87. Which laser-printer component has most likely failed in situations where all toner on the output page is loose?
a. Transfer corona wire
b. HVPS
c. Fuser
d. Cleaning blade

88. Which networking structures differ by the types of protocol they use and vastly by the geographic range they cover?
a. Switched LANs and routed LANs
b. LANs and WANs
c. TI WANs and DS-3 WANs
d. Ethernet LANs and Token Ring LANs

89. How is an Ethernet LAN using hubs and switches described?
a. Logical star, physical bus
b. Physical star, logical ring
c. Logical mesh, physical bus
d. Physical star, logical bus

90. Which of the following is not a protocol in the TCP/IP protocol suite?
a. UDP
b. ICMP
c. IPX
d. FTP

91. What are the two portions of an IP address called?
a. Host; node
b. Network; host
c. Address; node
d. Address; mask

92. What is the purpose of a subnet mask in IP addressing?
a. By itself, it tells what subnet a node is a member of.
b. It hides, or masks, the subnet number for security purposes.
c. When used with the address, it marks where the network ID ends and the host ID begins.
d. When mathematically applied to the IP address, it sets the subnet portion to all zeros and leaves the host portion visible.

93. Which of the following values is equivalent to 224?
a. 48
b. 256
c. 65,536
d. 16,777,216

94. Which of the following is the best transmission medium for long distances and when electrical interference is a factor?
a. Coaxial
b. Twisted pair
c. Fiber
d. Wireless

95. What does it mean for communications cabling to be plenum-rated?
a. The jacket is more rugged, for installation in harsher environments.
b. Plenum-rated cabling takes longer to burn in a fire than does PVC and is safer for open ventilation returns.
c. PVC allows for only certain jacket colors. Plenum is a material that supports additional colors.
d. Plenum-rated cabling has a much longer distance limitation than PVC.

96. What does the term VoIP refer to?
a. Video transmissions are converted to IP packets for transmission over an JP network.
b. Voice recorders with an Ethernet attachment send audio over an IP network.
c. Voice traffic is converted to IP packets for transmission over an IP network.
d. Variability of JP traffic ensures that no one source monopolizes the available bandwidth.

97. How does file-system security differ between FAT and NTFS file systems'?
a. File-system security is equivalent in the two files systems.
b. FAT only allows securing of network shares. NTFS allows securing of individual files for local access as well.
c. A user must be logged on for FAT file system security to work. NTFS file-system security works all the time.
d. FAT offers absolutely no security, locally or over the network.

98. All of the following are terms found in the field of data encryption except:
a. Hashing
b. Algorithm symmetry
c. SHA
d. PAP

99. With regard to protecting against damaging components with ESD, which of the following is not sound advice?
a. Don't try to make your own antistatic wrist straps. Commercial models have a resistor to keep you from being the best path to ground.
b. When you do not have an antistatic work area or wrist strap, just make sure to keep touching the antistatic bags that the components came in to bleed off any dangerous static charge.
c. Don't wear an antistatic wrist strap when working with CRTs and power supplies.
d. Keep the relative humidity in your work area from getting too low to avoid improved conditions for the development of static build-up.

100. All of the following are steps to follow in diagnosing a customer's problem except:
a. Make an educated guess based on the symptoms.
b. Have the customer reproduce the error.
c. Identify recent changes.
d. Have the customer describe the symptoms.